Properties of Norm of Prime Ideals
Let \(I \trianglelefteq \mathcal{O}_\mathbb{K}\) be a prime ideal of a number ring. Then \(N(I) = p^m\) for some prime number \(p\) and \(m \leq [\mathbb{K}:\mathbb{Q}]\), and such a \(p\) is the only prime in \(I\).
The above tells you that the norm of prime ideals is a power of a prime number, so an interesting question is does the converse hold. The answer is no, but we can recover a weak converse.
Proof
First note that \(N(I) \in I\), and therefore \(I \mid \langle N(I) \rangle\). Now, considering the factorisation of \(N(I)\) in the integers given by \(N(I) = p_1^{e_1} \dots p_r^{e_r}\) we have that
This implies that \(p_1, \dots, p_r \in I\). We now will show that \(r = 1\), and hence only one prime can be in \(I\). Suppose there are two distinct primes \(p, q \in I\). Then
however this contradicts the fact that \(I\) is prime by definition.
Let \(I \trianglelefteq \mathcal{O}_\mathbb{K}\). If \(N(I)\) is a prime number then \(I\) is prime.
Proof
For any ideal \(I\) we have a unique factorisation into prime ideals
where \(e_i > 0\).
By multiplicativity of the norm we can deduce that
Given that \(N(I)\) is a prime number, the only way that \(N(I)\) can be equal to such a product is if \(e_i = 1\) for some \(i \in \{1, \dots, r\}\) and \(N(\mathfrak{p}_j) = 1\) for each \(j \neq i\). This would mean
However
and this contradicts the fact that \(p_j\) is prime.
Therefore we have that there are no such \(j\), and in particular
which is prime by definition.